It’s becoming increasingly hard to avoid the conclusion that
there is rampant anti-police bias among many in the media. “Unarmed black man”: reflect on its usage in the reports on the
shooting in Ferguson, Missouri, or in Cleveland where a man and his female
companion were shot repeatedly in their car after a high speed chase.
In Ferguson, a thorough investigation established that the
“unarmed” Michael Brown posed a genuine threat to the officer’s safety.
In Cleveland, many pursuing police officers were convinced
that the vehicle’s occupants were firing at them.
Implicit in the subject phrase is the assumption that the
police shootings were unjustified – the victims shot were defenseless and posed
no threat. They were, in fact, targeted
because they were black.
Of course, such has been perpetrated by some police office
in the past and may very well still occur today. But is that the rule, rather than the
exception? Recent events strongly
suggest not. Yet some in the media (CNN
among others) apparently favor the term “unarmed black man” rather than a more
neutral description that a law enforcement officer shot a suspect.
Is the inflammatory expression used to generate viewership
interest? Is it simply a shorthand
expression to avoid serious thought? Or
is it employed as a product of the user’s bias?
Probably all factors are at play.
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